Agnostic.com

2 4

Article about when the concept of homosexuality was actually introduced into translations of the Bible, replacing that of child-molestation (specifically of small boys by older men).
[forgeonline.org]

Allamanda 8 Nov 13
Share

Enjoy being online again!

Welcome to the community of good people who base their values on evidence and appreciate civil discourse - the social network you will enjoy.

Create your free account

2 comments

Feel free to reply to any comment by clicking the "Reply" button.

0

I am no expert on old languages , but the tone of the article makes it sound like contrived revisionist spin to me. Note that it starts by talking about German and other central European languages, why not Greek, Hebrew or Aramaic ? They must know that the original bible was not writen in German, so why start with a late mistranslation, unless of course you have an agenda.

@Allamanda If it is only about their collection/geographic area, why does the article not talk about the German Bible or the European Bible. as I say I am no expert but LenHazell53 below sound much more authoritive to me.

@Allamanda Even if it did enter the bible later (I think unlikely.) it was almost certainly there much earlier than that. Because for example, the Koran which largely takes its morality from the bible certainly includes it.

@Allamanda Yes. That is true. And of course a lot of cultures allowed female homosexuallty, in the past. But not because they were liberal and tolerant, but often because they believed so strongly in a male centred world, that as far as they were concern sex was something only men could do, something that took place between women and other livestock was not trivial, it was simply beneath notice, even to ban it.

0

In the widely used Douay-Rheims and KJV both dating for at least two to four hundred years past the words Man and Mankind are used in the translations.
Vayikra 20:13 in the Torah which is the equivalent verse uses the Hebrew words Ish and zachar, the closest translation in modern English is "a guy" and "a gentleman" respectively (common word for a male and formal word for a male).

Vayikra 20:13
If an ish also lie with zachar, as he lieth with an isha, both of them have committed to’evah; they shall surely be put to death; their dahm shall be upon them.

It is therefore to me at least fairly certain this always refered to homosexuality, but not between the patricians and the proles.

So some Septuagint translations in to Greek may have thought it more prudent to admonish against pedophilia rather than homosexuality by translating Zachar as αρσενοκοίτες which does actually mean male, but young man rather than gentleman. It certainly does not mean boy child as is pushed in this article as that would be Agori. Luther however may well have decided to make the translation in to knabenschander which does indeed mean shamer of boys IF you split the word in to knaben and schänder however if you leave it as one word it means sodomite.

You can include a link to this post in your posts and comments by including the text q:426046
Agnostic does not evaluate or guarantee the accuracy of any content. Read full disclaimer.